Student Name
University of Phoenix
NSG/507 Social Justice and Information Systems for Population Health
Prof. Name:
Date
Scenario:Â A 44-year-old woman presents with a breast mass that is diagnosed as a benign cyst. She has no family history of breast cancer and previously had one screening mammogram at age 43.
Question:Â What advice regarding breast cancer screening is most appropriate?
Options
A. Breast self-examination (BSE) should be routinely taught.
B. Clinical breast examination (CBE) should begin annually at age 30.
C. She was compliant with USPSTF recommendations for her age and risk factors. ✅
D. Mammography is most accurate in women in their 40s.
E. There is no controversy regarding breast cancer screening guidelines.
Correct Answer:Â C
Key Points
Average-risk women should follow age-appropriate screening recommendations.
Routine BSE is not universally recommended because it has not been shown to reduce mortality.
Breast cancer screening recommendations vary among professional organizations.
Scenario:Â A healthy 42-year-old woman wants to replace mammography with MRI because she is concerned about radiation exposure.
Question:Â Which statement about breast MRI screening is correct?
Options
A. MRI is well studied for routine screening in average-risk women.
B. MRI increases sensitivity but decreases specificity. ✅
C. She is an ideal MRI screening candidate.
D. MRI is recommended for women with lifetime breast cancer risk below 20%.
E. BRCA mutation alone is insufficient for MRI screening.
Correct Answer:Â B
Key Points
MRI detects more cancers (higher sensitivity).
MRI also results in more false-positive findings (lower specificity).
MRI is primarily recommended for high-risk women (e.g., BRCA mutation carriers or lifetime risk ≥20%).
Scenario:Â A woman presents with bilateral milky nipple discharge, irregular menses, negative pregnancy test, and normal thyroid function.
Question:Â What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options
A. Mastitis
B. Ductal carcinoma in situ
C. Paget disease
D. Occult pregnancy
E. Prolactinoma ✅
Correct Answer:Â E
Key Points
Bilateral milky discharge (galactorrhea) with menstrual irregularities suggests hyperprolactinemia.
Pregnancy and hypothyroidism should be excluded before considering prolactinoma.
Prolactinoma is a common cause of persistent galactorrhea.
Scenario:Â A young woman discovers a painless breast mass during self-examination and fears breast cancer.
Question:Â Which statement is correct?
Options
A. Most self-detected masses are malignant.
B. Fibroadenoma is more likely than breast cancer. ✅
C. Breast abscess is the most likely diagnosis.
D. Imaging is unnecessary because she is young.
E. BSE has very high sensitivity and specificity.
Correct Answer:Â B
Key Points
Fibroadenoma is the most common benign breast tumor in young women.
Any persistent breast mass should still be evaluated with appropriate imaging.
Routine BSE is not universally recommended because evidence has not shown improved survival.
Scenario:Â A woman has multiple paternal relatives with breast cancer, including her father, and has Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry.
Question:Â Which statement is true?
Options
A. Paternal family history is unimportant.
B. Male breast cancer does not influence BRCA testing.
C. BRCAPRO adds no clinical value.
D. She has multiple indications for BRCA testing. ✅
E. BRCA-positive patients do not require different screening.
Correct Answer:Â D
Key Points
Important BRCA risk factors include:
Male breast cancer in a first-degree relative.
Multiple relatives with breast cancer.
Paternal family history.
Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry.
Positive BRCA testing changes screening, surveillance, and preventive management.
Breast self-examination:Â Not routinely recommended for average-risk women.
Clinical breast examination:Â Recommendations vary among organizations.
MRI screening:Â Higher sensitivity, lower specificity; reserved for high-risk patients.
Fibroadenoma:Â Most common breast mass in young women.
Galactorrhea + irregular menses: Think prolactinoma after excluding pregnancy and thyroid disease.
BRCA testing:Â Consider with strong family history, male breast cancer, and Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry.
Scenario:Â A 68-year-old woman has multiple breast cancer risk factors:
Mother with breast cancer
Cousin diagnosed before age 50
Prior chest radiation for lymphoma
Previous hormone replacement therapy
Dense breasts with abnormal mammograms (benign biopsies)
Question:Â Which statement regarding breast MRI screening is correct?
A. No organization recommends MRI for patients with these risk factors.
B. USPSTF recommends against MRI screening.
C. MRI has higher sensitivity but lower specificity than mammography. ✅
D. Breast density does not affect mammography.
E. Chest radiation is not a breast cancer risk factor.
Breast MRI is more sensitive than mammography but has more false-positive results.
MRI is recommended for selected high-risk women, especially those with prior chest radiation or BRCA mutations.
Dense breast tissue decreases mammographic sensitivity.
Scenario:Â A 66-year-old woman has a firm, rubbery, non-tender right supraclavicular lymph node without breast symptoms.
Question:Â Which statement is correct?
A. Breast cancer always spreads first to axillary nodes.
B. Supraclavicular nodes are usually benign.
C. Supraclavicular nodes lie along the anterior edge of the trapezius.
D. Firm, rubbery nodes are generally benign.
E. Breast cancer may spread directly to infraclavicular and supraclavicular nodes without obvious axillary involvement. ✅
Enlarged supraclavicular lymph nodes are always concerning for malignancy.
Breast lymphatics can spread to:
Axillary nodes
Infraclavicular nodes
Supraclavicular nodes
Hard, fixed, non-tender nodes strongly suggest metastatic disease.
Scenario:Â A 24-year-old woman has a mobile, rubbery fibroadenoma in the right breast located 3 cm superior and 3 cm medial to the nipple.
Question:Â How should the location be documented?
A. Right breast, 10:30 position from the nipple. ✅
B. Lower outer quadrant.
C. Upper inner quadrant.
D. Left upper outer quadrant.
E. Right breast, 1:30 position.
A
Breast lesions are described using:
Clock-face position
Distance from the nipple
Breast side (right/left)
In the right breast, a lesion superior and medial corresponds approximately to the 10:30 position.
Scenario:Â A 54-year-old postmenopausal woman reports that her breasts have become less lumpy.
Question:Â Which statement is correct?
A. Fatty replacement decreases mammographic accuracy.
B. Hormone replacement therapy has no effect on density.
C. Breast glandular tissue atrophies because the number of lobules decreases. ✅
D. Breast density has no genetic influence.
E. Mammography performs worst after menopause.
C
Menopause causes:
Atrophy of glandular tissue
Decreased lobules
Increased fatty replacement
Fatty breasts improve mammographic sensitivity.
Hormone replacement therapy may increase breast density.
Higher sensitivity
Lower specificity
Best for high-risk patients (BRCA mutation, prior chest radiation, lifetime risk ≥20%)
Hard, fixed, supraclavicular nodes → suspicious for malignancy
Breast cancer can spread beyond axillary nodes
Always include:
Side (right/left)
Clock-face position
Distance from nipple
Size
Consistency
Mobility
Tenderness
↓ Lobules
↑ Fat replacement
↓ Breast density
Mammography becomes more accurate
Scenario: A 72-year-old woman has a 3-month history of unilateral bloody nipple discharge and a hard, fixed axillary lymph node.
A. Benign breast abnormality
B. Breast cancer ✅
C. Galactorrhea
Unilateral spontaneous bloody nipple discharge is highly suspicious for breast cancer.
A hard, fixed axillary node strongly suggests metastatic disease.
Breast cancer may present without a palpable breast mass.
Scenario: A 44-year-old woman has an eczema-like scaly lesion of the nipple with an underlying painless breast mass.
A. Nipple retraction
B. Paget disease ✅
C. Peau d’orange
Paget disease presents as:
Persistent eczema-like nipple rash
Scaling/crusting
Possible ulceration
Often associated with an underlying breast carcinoma.
Any nipple eczema that fails topical treatment requires evaluation for malignancy.
Scenario: A 56-year-old woman develops a flattened nipple deviating laterally, with a palpable breast mass and fixed axillary nodes.
A. Nipple retraction ✅
B. Paget disease
C. Peau d’orange
Nipple retraction is a late sign of breast cancer.
Caused by fibrosis pulling the nipple inward.
Frequently associated with invasive carcinoma.
Scenario: A 19-year-old woman has clear unilateral discharge only when the nipple is squeezed. Pregnancy test is negative.
A. Benign breast abnormality ✅
B. Breast cancer
C. Nonpuerperal galactorrhea
Clear discharge that is:
Expressed only with compression
Unilateral
Non-bloody
No mass present
→ Usually benign.
Advise the patient to stop repeatedly expressing the nipple before further workup.
Scenario: A 23-year-old obese woman with acne and irregular menses has dark, velvety axillary skin.
A. Peau d’orange
B. Acanthosis nigricans ✅
C. Hidradenitis suppurativa
Associated with:
Insulin resistance
Obesity
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
Type 2 diabetes
Rarely associated with internal malignancy.
Scenario: A 43-year-old woman has a painful, red, warm, movable axillary lymph node after cutting her hand while gardening.
A. Breast cancer
B. Infectious lymphadenopathy ✅
C. Hidradenitis suppurativa
Infection causes lymph nodes that are:
Tender
Warm
Mobile
Erythematous
Always examine the skin draining into the affected lymph node for cuts, bites, or scratches.
Bloody unilateral nipple discharge
Hard, fixed lymph nodes
Nipple retraction
Paget disease
Clear discharge only with nipple compression
Tender, mobile, warm lymph nodes → infection
Paget disease:Â Scaly nipple lesion
Acanthosis nigricans:Â Dark velvety axilla (insulin resistance)
Peau d’orange:Â Edematous “orange peel” skin caused by lymphatic obstruction in breast cancer
Scenario:Â A 30-year-old man notices a firm 2-cm mass beneath the areola. No symptoms or family history of breast cancer.
A. Normal breast tissue ✅
B. Fibrocystic disease
C. Breast cancer
D. Lymph node
A
Approximately one-third of adult men have palpable breast tissue beneath the areola.
Male breast cancer is uncommon.
There are no lymph nodes directly beneath the areola.
Which axillary lymph node group is most commonly involved in breast cancer?
A. Lateral
B. Subscapular
C. Pectoral
D. Central ✅
The central axillary nodes are most commonly involved.
During examination, palpate:
Central
Pectoral
Lateral
Subscapular
Apex of the axilla
When should BSE be performed?
A. 5–7 days after menstruation begins (or after menses ends) ✅
B. Mid-cycle
C. Immediately before menses
D. During menses
Perform BSE when hormonal stimulation is lowest.
Breasts are least tender and least swollen shortly after menstruation.
Scenario:Â A 48-year-old woman presents with a breast mass.
A. About 10% ✅
B. About 20%
C. About 30%
D. About 40%
Roughly 1 in 10 (≈11%) women presenting with a breast mass have breast cancer.
Although most masses are benign, every new breast mass requires evaluation.
How often should a skilled clinician perform a screening breast examination?
A. Every year
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 3 years ✅
D. Every 4 years
(Based on the Bates edition referenced.) Clinical breast examination was recommended every 3 years for younger women.
Note:Â Current screening recommendations vary among organizations and have changed over time.
Which finding is most likely benign?
A. Peau d’orange
B. One breast larger than the other ✅
C. Newly inverted nipple
D. Skin dimpling with forward leaning
Mild breast asymmetry is common.
Concerning findings include:
Skin dimpling
Peau d’orange
Recent nipple inversion/retraction
Which palpation pattern is most effective?
A. Spiral
B. Quadrant
C. Vertical strip (“lawn-mower”) pattern ✅
D. Radial spokes
The vertical strip pattern has the highest detection rate.
Always include the Tail of Spence (axillary tail) during examination.
Which statement is correct?
A. No further breast examinations are necessary.
B. Examine the surgical scar carefully for recurrence. ✅
C. Ipsilateral arm lymphedema usually indicates recurrence.
D. Reconstruction eliminates the need for examination.
Women remain at risk for:
Local recurrence
Contralateral breast cancer
Examine:
Surgical scar
Remaining breast
Axillary lymph nodes
Lymphedema is a common postoperative complication and does not necessarily indicate recurrence.
Which statement about BSE is true?
A. It reduces breast cancer mortality.
B. It is recommended by every screening organization.
C. Many breast masses are first detected during BSE. ✅
D. Anxiety caused by BSE means it should not be taught.
C
Many breast abnormalities are first noticed by patients.
However:
BSEÂ has not been proven to reduce mortality.
Recommendations differ among professional organizations.
Women who choose to perform BSE should be taught a systematic examination technique.
Palpable breast tissue beneath the male areola
Mild breast asymmetry
Peau d’orange
Skin dimpling
Recent nipple inversion
Hard, fixed lymph nodes
Best palpation:Â Vertical strip pattern
Include the Tail of Spence
Perform BSE 5–7 days after menstruation
Continue lifelong surveillance.
Carefully inspect and palpate the scar, remaining breast, and regional lymph nodes.
BSE helps detect many breast masses but has not been shown to reduce mortality.
Screening recommendations vary by guideline and patient risk.
Question:Â Which tissues primarily make up the breast?
A. Mostly muscle
B. Fibrous, glandular, and adipose tissue ✅
C. Mostly lactiferous ducts
D. Glandular tissue attached to chest wall
Breast tissue consists of:
Glandular tissue (lobes/lobules)
Fibrous connective tissue (Cooper ligaments)
Adipose tissue
The breast contains very little muscle.
Question:Â Why is the upper outer quadrant examined carefully?
A. Largest quadrant
B. Most breast tumors occur here ✅
C. Contains most suspensory ligaments
D. Most prone to calcification
Most breast cancers develop in the upper outer quadrant.
Includes the Tail of Spence, which extends into the axilla.
Question:Â Which axillary lymph node groups should be examined?
A. Central, axillary, lateral, sternal
B. Pectoral, lateral, inferior, sternal
C. Central, lateral, pectoral, and subscapular ✅
D. Lateral, pectoral, axillary, suprascapular
Four major axillary node groups:
Central
Pectoral (anterior)
Subscapular (posterior)
Lateral (humeral)
Question:Â A recent breast infection usually enlarges which lymph nodes?
A. Nonspecific
B. Ipsilateral axillary nodes ✅
C. Contralateral axillary nodes
D. Inguinal and cervical nodes
Over 75% of breast lymph drains to the same-side (ipsilateral) axillary lymph nodes.
Question:Â What is the best nursing response?
A. “Don’t worry.”
B. “I was a late bloomer too.”
C. “You’ll menstruate before your breasts grow.”
D. Breast development usually begins between ages 8–10 years. ✅
Breast budding normally begins 8–10 years.
Menarche typically occurs about 2 years after breast development begins.
Acknowledge the child’s concerns rather than dismissing them.
Question:Â A mother reports one breast is enlarging and tender.
A. Abnormal—needs urgent evaluation.
B. Breast cancer is common.
C. Temporary asymmetry is usually normal. ✅
D. Tenderness is unusual.
During puberty:
One breast may develop before the other.
Mild tenderness is common.
Reassurance is appropriate unless other concerning findings exist.
Question:Â Which history is most helpful?
A. Age breast development began ✅
B. Mother’s age at breast development
C. Pubic hair onset
D. Axillary hair onset
Menarche usually occurs about 2 years after breast budding.
Breast development is the best predictor of pubertal progression.
Question:Â A woman reports her breasts change throughout the month.
A. This is unusual.
B. Due to stress.
C. Hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle cause cyclic breast changes. ✅
D. Changes occur only in pregnancy.
Premenstrual changes include:
Fullness
Tenderness
Heaviness
Breasts are least swollen 4–7 days after menstruation begins
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