Student Name
Western Governors University
D115 Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
Prof. Name:
Date
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering an antigen?
a. Size
b. Complexity
c. Quantity
d. Foreignness
Which statement is correct regarding the secondary immune response?
a. A latent period or lag phase occurs.
b. IgM is the primary immunoglobulin produced.
c. IgG levels are significantly increased.
d. Memory cells must first develop.
A nurse is asked about natural killer (NK) cells. How should the nurse respond?
a. NK cells only act independently to cause apoptosis.
b. NK cells destroy abnormal cells that express MHC class I markers.
c. NK cells lack antigen-specific receptors.
d. NK cells mature in the thymus.
Alloimmunity occurs when:
a. The immune system mounts a response against tissues from another individual.
b. Immunologic tolerance to self-antigens is disrupted.
c. Antigens are present in the environment.
d. An anaphylactic reaction develops.
A person experiences a type I allergic reaction. Which pathophysiologic response is occurring?
a. Antibodies bind to tissue-specific antigens.
b. Immune complexes are deposited in vessel walls.
c. T lymphocytes, rather than antibodies, mediate the response.
d. IgE and products released from tissue mast cells are involved.
Autoimmunity occurs when:
a. Self-antigens stimulate molecular mimicry.
b. Transplanted tissues are rejected.
c. The immune system recognizes self-antigens as foreign.
d. Acute rejection of a transplanted organ occurs.
Which statement is correct regarding secondary immune deficiencies?
Secondary immune deficiencies may result from:
a. Increased dietary zinc intake.
b. Caring for an older parent with Alzheimer disease.
c. Aspirin therapy prescribed by a physician.
d. Congenital or genetic defects in a neonate.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing ABO incompatibility?
a. Natural killer cell activity
b. Phagocytosis by macrophages
c. Phagocytosis in the spleen
d. Complement-mediated cell lysis
What is the earliest time after sexual transmission of HIV that laboratory results can detect infection?
a. 1–2 days
b. 4–10 days
c. 4–8 weeks
d. 2–4 months
Which is a characteristic of exotoxins?
a. Released during bacterial cell lysis
b. Contained in the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria
c. Capable of initiating complement and coagulation cascades
d. Released during bacterial growth
A person presents to the clinic reporting mild fatigue and discomfort after exposure to a family member with influenza. The nurse suspects the person is in the:
a. Convalescent period
b. Incubation period
c. Prodromal period
d. Invasion period
Which statement is correct regarding parasitic infections?
a. These infections attach using pili (fimbriae).
b. Candida albicans is an example of a parasitic infection.
c. Parasitic infections are transmitted exclusively from human to human.
d. Malaria is a common parasitic infection.
A person who is HIV-positive is hospitalized with pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii. The nurse understands this finding indicates the person:
a. Has adequate levels of helper T (Th) cells.
b. Is serologically positive with asymptomatic HIV disease.
c. Is in the early stages of HIV infection.
d. Has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS.
A nurse is asked how antibiotics work. How should the nurse respond?
a. They protect the bacterial cell wall.
b. They inhibit protein synthesis.
c. They enhance DNA replication.
d. They support folic acid synthesis.
Which dietary lifestyle choice is associated with a decreased risk of developing colon cancer?
a. Increased consumption of dairy products
b. Decreased consumption of high-fat foods
c. Increased consumption of foods rich in vitamin C
d. Decreased consumption of artificial food coloring
An individual who has worked with asbestos for more than 40 years is most likely to develop which type of cancer?
a. Bladder cancer
b. Leukemia
c. Stomach cancer
d. Lung cancer
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